Board Thread:General Mod Discussion/@comment-29680750-20170806070151/@comment-25754873-20170811212615

212.205.110.226 wrote:

MrHobit1234 wrote:

Legoarmy505 wrote:

MrHobit1234 wrote:

62.103.185.10 wrote:

MrHobit1234 wrote:

62.103.185.10 wrote:

Legoarmy505 wrote: Sounds like this is an argument on whether a state owned a land or a ethnicity. Dunlendings are not a faction, they are a people. There is different tribes and clans in the area we call dunland, but they aren't United. They just want their old land back before the Rohirrim more or less chased all of them out or killed them. Gondor owned the land, but no dunedain lived there. Spot on reply! Kudos, when I get on my wikia His entire premise is false, the Dunedain did live their, but sparsely at the time. The land was owned by Gondorians, though it would be hard to press the claims. His entire premise is correct, you are mistaking 'a single incorrect statement' with 'an entirely wrong point'

The basic idea he had was wether a land was owned by a state or by a ethnicity- which is basically what this all is about.

Just because his last sentence wasn't entirely correct doesn't make his entire premise false The lands were never "theirs" they belonged to the Gondorians of Calenardhon. The dunlendings didn't own the land. They lived in it. Only the King of gondor owned the land (I am presuming the gondorians used a feudal system). Gondor, was not fuedal! The land belonged to the Gondorians who payed taxes to the kingdom. How do you know it's not feudal? It had fiefdoms for crying out loud, it's not a democracy Because Denethor was a strong ruler who did not rule at the whims of his "vassals" the fiefs were more similar to administrative districts than anything. The only vassal in Gondor was the Prince of Dol Amroth(during the reign of the Stewards), who would have done anything the Steward told him to do anyways.